Answer any two of the following three sub-parts (i), (ii), (iii) on the basis of decided case laws, bringing out the following – Issue involved…

CA Final · Direct Tax Laws and International Taxation · MTP · November 2026
Answer any two of the following three sub-parts (i), (ii), (iii) on the basis of decided case laws, bringing out the following – Issue involved Relevant provisions of law Analysis and Conclusion (i) During the scrutiny assessment of Orange Ltd., a company engaged in manufacture and distribution of packaged Coconut water and fresh drinks, the Assessing Officer increased the income and passed an order of demand. Aggrieved by the order, the assessee filed an appeal to CIT(A), who confirmed the order of Assessing Officer. The assessee further appealed to Appellate Tribunal requesting for the stay of collection of tax, which the Tribunal provided initially for 180 days on deposit of 20% of the amount of tax by Orange Ltd. Thereafter, the Bench was functioning intermittently and therefore, the disputed matter could not be disposed off. The company applied for extension of stay and was granted extension upto 365 days. The Appellate Tribunal did not dispose off the appeal before the time extended for collection of tax. The revenue served an order of demand citing the reason that the order of stay automatically gets vacated post the expiry of 365 days. The assessee seeks your opinion as to whether the contention of the revenue is justified. (ii) On 1 st May 2025, Mr. Hritik, a resident individual, received 1,500 bonus shares from Raga Pvt. Ltd. in which he held 3,000 equity shares. The Assessing Officer held that since the assessee has not paid any consideration for bonus shares, he was under an obligation in law to offer the market value as income from other sources under section 56(2)(x) of the Act. The Assessing Officer computed the fair value of these bonus shares and added the amount to the income of Mr. Hritik as "Income from other sources". Whether the decision of the Assessing Officer is correct in law? (iii) Assessee had taken an engine on lease under an agreement with a foreign company (lessor), a tax resident of France, having no permanent establishment (PE) in India. The foreign company also does not have PAN in India. The assessee company deducted tax at source @10% on lease rental as per the provisions contained under DTAA between India and France. However, revenue contended that in the absence of furnishing of PAN, the assessee was under an obligation to deduct tax at a higher rate of 20% following the provisions of section 206AA. In the light of the latest Supreme Court rulings, discuss whether the contention of Revenue is correct or not.

Suggested Answer and Working Notes:

(i) Issue Involved: The issue under consideration is whether the stay order can be automatically vacated upon expiry of extended period of stay of 365 days, where the delay in disposing of the appeal is not attributable to the assessee. Relevant provision of law: The third proviso to section 254(2A) provides that where the appeal filed before the Appellate Tribunal is not disposed of within the period of stay or extended period of stay granted by the Tribunal, the order of stay shall stand vacated after the expiry of 365 days, even if the delay in disposing of the appeal is not attributable to the assessee. Analysis & Conclusion: This provision would result in the automatic vacation of a stay upon the expiry of 365 days, even if the Appellate Tribunal could not take up the appeal in time for no fault of the assessee. Thus, the vacation of stay in favour of the Department would ensue even if the Department is itself responsible for the delay in hearing the appeal. This will cause undue hardship to the assessee, even where he is not at fault. In this sense, the provision is arbitrary and disproportionate so far as the assessee is concerned. The contention of the revenue is not justified. Any order of stay shall stand vacated after the expiry of the period or periods mentioned in the section, only if the delay in disposing of the appeal is attributable to the assessee. Note - The facts given in the question are similar to the facts in DCIT v. Pepsi Foods Ltd (2021) 433 ITR 295, wherein the above issue came up before the Supreme Court. The above answer is based on the rationale of the Supreme Court ruling in that case. (ii) Issue Involved: The issue under consideration is whether bonus shares received by shareholders would be taxable under the head 'Income from other sources' as per the provisions of section 56(2)(x), as they are received without consideration. Provision Applicable: Section 56(2)(x) brings to tax any sum of money or value of property received by any person without consideration or for inadequate consideration from any person. Analysis: The issue of bonus shares by capitalization of reserves is merely a reallocation of the company's funds. There is no inflow of fresh funds or increase in the capital employed, which remains the same. Thus, there is no addition or alteration to the profit-making apparatus and the total funds available with the company remain the same. On the other hand, when a shareholder gets bonus shares, the value of the original shares held by him goes down and the market value as well as intrinsic value of the two shares put together will be the same or nearly the same as the value of original share before the issue of bonus shares. Thus, any profit derived by the assessee shareholder on account of receipt of bonus shares is adjusted by depreciation in the value of equity shares originally held by him. Conclusion: Accordingly, the action of the Assessing Officer in including the fair value of bonus shares as Income from other sources of Mr. Hritik is incorrect. Note - The facts given in the question are similar to the facts in PCIT v. Dr. Ranjan Pai (2021) 431 ITR 250, wherein the issue came up before the Karnataka High Court. The above answer is based on the rationale of the Karnataka High Court in the said case. (iii) Issue Involved: The issue under consideration is whether the provisions of section 206AA, which prescribe a higher rate of tax deduction at source in case of non-furnishing of PAN by a foreign company, override the Double Taxation Avoidance Agreement (DTAA) that specify a lower rate of tax. Provisions Applicable: As per section 206AA, in case of non-furnishing of PAN by the deductee to the deductor, the tax is required to be deducted at higher of the rate specified in the relevant provision or at the rates in force or at the rate of 20%. Analysis and Conclusion: Section 90(2) provides that the provisions of the DTAAs would override the provisions of the Act in cases where the provisions of DTAAs are more beneficial to the assessee. Even the charging sections 4 and 5 of the Act, which deal with the principle of ascertainment of total income under the Act, are also subordinate to the principle enshrined in section 90(2). Thus, in so far as the applicability of the scope/rate of taxation with respect to the impugned payments made to the non-residents is concerned, no fault can be found with the rate of taxation invoked by the assessee based on the DTAAs, which prescribed for a beneficial rate of taxation. The provisions of tax withholding, i.e., section 195 of the Act, would apply only to sums that are otherwise chargeable to tax under the Act. The provisions of DTAAs, along with sections 4, 5, 9, 90 & 91 of the Act, are relevant while applying the provisions of tax deduction at source. Therefore, section 206AA of the Act cannot be understood to override charging sections 4 and 5 of the Act. Accordingly, the contention of the revenue that in the absence of furnishing of PAN, the assessee was under an obligation to deduct tax at a higher rate of 20% is not correct. The above answer is based on the rationale of the Supreme Court in CIT (International Taxation) v. Air India Ltd. [2023] 456 ITR 139.

Topics: Appeals and Revision, Capital Gains, Profits and Gains of Business or Profession

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